Can a Catholic priest have a wife and children?
Yes. In the Catholic Church a priest can have a wife and children, but it depends on the rite in which he serves. Unity of the Catholic doctrines is not synonymous with uniformity of discipline.
In the Latin rite (the most numerous, commonly called "Roman Catholic"), the discipline of celibacy is the norm for priests, meaning they generally cannot marry after ordination. However, the Catholic Church is not a monolith—it comprises 24 Churches, including 23 Eastern Churches (e.g., Albanian, Belarusian, Chaldean, Eritrean, Ethiopian, Serbian, Croatian, Macedonian, Greek Catholic, Byzantine, Armenian, Maronite) where the discipline allows the ordination of married men as priests. Their ordinations are equally valid as those in the Latin rite.
The whole controversy stems from the interpretation of two statements by St. Paul: (1 Cor 7:32–35 and 1 Tim 3:2)
St. Paul in 1 Corinthians 7 praises celibacy as a state enabling full dedication to the things of God ("the unmarried man is anxious about the affairs of the Lord"), but does not mandate it. In 1 Timothy 3:2 (and similarly Titus 1:6), he states that a "presbyter [bishop/overseer] must be the husband of one wife" (Gr. miās gynaikos andra). This does not exclude celibacy but emphasizes marital fidelity if marriage exists.
David H. Stern, a Messianic Jew and author of Jewish New Testament Commentary (1992, Jewish New Testament Publications), proposes three possible interpretations of these passages, emphasizing the historical context (where polygamy was rare but possible in some Jewish circles). Stern argues that Paul does not mandate marriage but excludes bigamy or infidelity, which aligns with his praise of celibacy in 1 Corinthians 7.
Stern lists:
a: A presbyter may have at most one wife (but need not—celibacy is allowed).
b: A presbyter must be married (to one wife)—less likely, since Paul himself was celibate.
c: A presbyter must have at least one wife (even more are permitted)—least likely in the context of monogamy and praise of celibacy.
Since St. Paul lived in celibacy and praised this state, most theologians (including Catholic ones) accept interpretation 1: celibacy was "well-regarded but not mandatory" in the early Church.
So what changed? In the common interpretation, it is said that the Church did not want to allow the inheritance of clerical property but it is an oversimplification—the Church from the 4th century distinguished private property from Church property (e.g., Council of Elvira, 305).
It was not uncommon for local churches to be managed by emperors, kings, or princes. Everyone knows the famous investiture controversy (11th century).
The centralization of the Church was not far advanced at that time to manage the cadres (bishops, presbyters) in Europe, which led to many pathologies like nepotism, where sons of bishops inherited priestly offices, which loosened moral standards. To ensure that bishops would "care for the things of God" (1 Cor 7) clerics were ordered to live in celibacy. Celibacy became mandatory in the Latin Church after the Second Lateran Council (1139) and the Council of Trent (1563), reaching its peak under Innocent III (1198–1216), when the Church fought secular rulers (emperors, princes) over appointments. Episcopal dynasties (e.g., in Italy) loosened moral standards of the Church, which reformers like Gregory VII (1073–1085) combated with celibacy.
At this point it needs to be understood that celibacy is not a dogma but a discipline and can be relaxed or applied to specific individuals. Discipline allows for exceptions (e.g., married Anglican converts in the Latin rite). The Church emphasizes the words of Scripture, that celibacy is a "gift for the Kingdom" (Mt 19:12) but not mandatory for all ("He that is able to receive it, let him receive it").
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